The only good is virtue
From: George Richard [ ... ] [stoics] • stoics@yahoogroups.com
Grant writes elsewhere: "The only good is virtue"
Not criticising Grant here, but I've never really understood this statement. What does it mean? How does someone _apply_ this 'information' to help their quest for eudaimonia?
Also, Epictetus does not say this anywhere.
Virtuous _activity_ is the key I think, being both necessary and sufficient for eudaimonia.
From: Grant C Sterling [ ... ] [stoics] • stoics@yahoogroups.com
All:
Again, comments interspersed....
*****
Steve: "Replace 'virtue with 'correct use of impressions' and see if that is more palatable or understandable."
George: You're on the right track, Steve, I think, but, if we do this, Grant's sentence becomes: "The only good is 'correct use of impressions."
*****
Steve is correct. I would have no problem with that
formulation of my sentence. Nor do I object in any way to
your emphasis on virtuous activity rather than virtue.
You say that we can easily understand what virtuous
activity is...but that would only be because we easily
understand what virtue is, and understanding what
virtue is necessarily includes understanding what sorts
of activity virtue requires. So except in the bizarre case
Aristotle imagines (someone who is asleep all their lives)
there is no practical difference between saying that
eudaimonia comes from virtue and saying that it comes
from virtuous activity.. But if you prefer the latter, that's
fine with me...it is (minutely) more accurate.
*****
I'm not sure we're any further forward. What does this sentence mean? How does someone _apply_ this 'information' to help their quest for eudaimonia? The Stoic could spend his life alone, in the wilderness, contemplating 'virtue' or the 'correct use of impressions' and what does he achieve. We can imagine a good Stoic just sitting on a log, doing nothing, accepting one moment to the next until he dies from dehydration.
*****
This, on the other hand, is a fundamental distortion of
Stoic thought, and a distortion that is common enough that
I feel the need to say something about it.
Suppose that I am sitting on a log beside the road, and
someone runs into a pedestrian and then speeds off. If
I possess all the virtues, then I will _act_ to help the pedestrian.
(Perhaps by giving medical aid, perhaps by calling for an
ambulance, perhaps by running to the nearest house to get help...
whatever is called for..) It is impossible, on the Stoic view, for
someone to truly possess a virtue and not act on it when the
situation arises.
Or phrase this in terms of right use of impressions. In the
case above, I will receive the impression (for example) "I ought to
(try to) call an ambulance". If I am making the right use of
People often have the idea that "assenting to the correct
impressions" means that I can know what the right thing is
to do in some situation and yet not do it. But the Stoic view of
human action says that if I don't try to summon an ambulance
then I _didn't_, actually, assent to the impression that calling
an ambulance was the best thing to do in that situation. We
all know of occasions when people said "I knew I shouldn't do
that, but I did it anyway". On the Stoic view this is always false--
if you truly assented to the impression "this isn't the best thing
for me to do right now", then you wouldn't have done it.
So the Sage can sit on the log and die of dehydration while
making coirrect use of impressions only if continuing to sit on
the log is truly the rational thing to do...in which case, sitting
on the log would be virtuous activity. It is impossible for those
two thing to come apart--it is impossible for engaging in
virtuous activity and making the right use of impressions to be
two different things.
This is important because I actually think that it's easier to
explain to someone the Stoic view of right impressions than
it is to explain to them virtuous activity. But if the other way
works better for you, that's fine.
*****
*****
I completely agree with everythinhg in your note below.
Notice again, however, that the only reason Aristotle
emphasizes virtuous activity is because he is imagining the
bizarre possibility of someone posessing a virtue but being
continually asleep or unable to act on that virtue. Since that
never happens in the real world, the distinction is purely academic.
Regards,
GCS
*****
Something from my Notebook may be of interest:
----------------
[Kraut] Aristotle asks what the ergon ("function", "task", "work") of a human being is, and argues that it consists in _activity_ of the rational part of the soul in accordance with _virtue_. What sets humanity off from other species, giving us the potential to live a better life, is our capacity to guide ourselves by using _reason_.
Aristotle's search for _the good_ is a search for the highest good, and he assumes that the highest good, whatever it turns out to be, has three characteristics: it is desirable for itself, it is not desirable for the sake of some other good, and all other goods are desirable for its sake. Aristotle thinks everyone will agree that the terms "eudaimonia" ("happiness") and "eu zên" ("living well") designate such an end.
Aristotle says, not that eudaimonia is virtue, but that _eudaimonia is virtuous activity_. Eudaimonia consists in _doing something_, not just being in a certain state or condition."
George: The _correct use of impressions_ involves controlling desire for things not in our control (or power) or in the control (or power) of others. All activity should be directed at things in our control (or power), and not at things in the control (or power) of others. We should not attach primary importance to the thing targeted: everything is pursued 'with reservation'. Continuous virtuous activity is necessary and sufficient for eudaimonia!
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